Constitution Of India 12th Political Science Lesson 1 Questions in English

12th Political Science Lesson 1 Questions in English

1] Constitution Of India

1. Nationalism during the colonial period strived for
2. Political independence
3. Territorial integration
4. Constitutionalism
5. a, b
6. b, c
7. c, a
8. a, b, c

Explanation

Nationalism during the colonial period strived not only for political independence but also for territorial integration, constitutionalism and democratization.

1. Find out the correct statement
2. India is a culturally diverse country, yet united as a political state.
3. Indians are dependent upon each other in many ways, and they cooperate in many ways.
4. a only
5. b only
6. Both a and b
7. Neither a nor b

Explanation

There is a felt need to have specific agreed basic rules and regulations which could facilitate the people of this country to live together. The absence of the basic rules and regulations may imperil the very statehood of India also make the people feel insecure.

1. Colonial rule was based on which of the following?
2. Charters
3. Councils Acts
4. Government of India Acts
5. a, b
6. b, c
7. c, a
8. a, b, c

Explanation

Colonial rule was based on Charters, councils Acts and government of India Acts. The leaders and political movements of the newly emerging Indian nation to based on a definite written constitution.

1. Find out the correct statement
2. The central legislative body was converted into a constituent Assembly
3. The central legislative body was converted into a constitution waking body
4. a only
5. b only
6. Both a and b
7. Neither a nor b

Explanation

The central legislative body was converted into a constituent Assembly (i.e. a constitution waking body). The proposed constitution was meant to bind different shatter and different categories of society into one state, facilitating a union of states and co-operation and co-ordination between various segments that constitute the federal narrow.

1. Find out the incorrect statement
2. Constitution facilitates co-operation and co-ordination between various segments that constitute the federal narrow
3. Constitution is a body of necessary codes according to which a state is constituted and governed
4. a only
5. b only
6. Both a and b
7. Neither a nor b

Explanation

The most critical function of a constitution is to provide a set of basic rules that allow for optimal coordination amongst members of the state.

1. Find out the correct statement
2. The constitution specifies the necessary allocation of power between the various segments of the state
3. The constitution does not specifies the necessary allocation of power between the various segments of the state
4. a only
5. b only
6. Both a and b
7. Neither a nor b

Explanation

The constitution specifies the necessary allocation of power between the various segments of the state. Indian diversities necessitated a Union of states, and the freedom movements favoured a democratic form of government. For example, Accordingly the Parliament in India decides laws and policies

1. Which part of Indian Constitution has provisions for the government to make laws to address many problems prevalent in Indian society?
2. Part 2
3. Part 4
4. Part 4A
5. Part 3

Explanation

Constitution empowers the government to fulfill the aspirations of a society and create conditions for a just society. The part four of the Indian Constitution has provisions for the government to make laws to address many problems prevalent in Indian society.

1. Find out the correct statement
2. The constitution expresses the fundamental identity of the people in a country.
3. People in a community may have many similar ethnic identities that exist before the enactment of the constitution.
4. The people of a country will not have a political identity
5. 1, 2
6. 2, 3
7. 1, 2, 3
8. 1, 3

Explanation

The people of a country will have a political identity after the promulgation of the structure by accepting the fundamental laws of the state put forth by the constitution.

1. Find out the incorrect statement
2. Constitution is called the “Fundamental Law of Land”
3. The individual’s objectives, aspirations, and freedoms need not to comply with the constitutional regulations of a country.
4. 1 only
5. 2 only
6. Both 1 & 2
7. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

The individual’s objectives, aspirations, and freedoms should comply with the constitutional regulations of a country.

1. Find out the incorrect statement about constitution
2. Constitutional puts forth specific fundamental laws which can be violated by its citizens.
3. It does not protects certain fundamental rights of the people living in a country.
4. The constitution of a country defines who are all the citizens of a nation.
5. 1, 3
6. 1, 2
7. 2, 3
8. None of the above

Explanation

Constitutional puts forth specific fundamental laws which cannot be violated by its citizens. It also protects certain fundamental rights of the people living in a country. The constitution of a country defines who are all the citizens of a nation.

1. Find out the correct statement
2. It illustrates the relationship between the states with each other
3. It illustrates the relationship between the states with the central government
4. 1 only
5. 2 only
6. Both 1 & 2
7. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Constitution also sets the framework that illustrates the relationship between the states or parts of a country with each other and even with the central government.

1. Find out the correct statement
2. Most of the constitutions in the world are written documents
3. All the constitutions in the world are written documents
4. 1 only
5. 2 only
6. Both 1 & 2
7. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Most of the constitutions in the world are written documents that comprise many articles and schedules.

1. Which of the following countries do not have written constitution?
2. India
3. United Kingdom
4. America
5. Russia

Explanation

The United Kingdom, instead has a series of customs, conventions and historical precedents which are collectively referred to as its constitutional components.

1. The constitution of UK is called as which of the following?
2. Direct constitution
3. Single constitution
4. District constitution
5. Written constitution

Explanation

There are still a few constitutions like that of the United Kingdom which do not have one single document, which could be called as a district constitution

1. Find out the correct statement about theocratic statement
2. A state which is secular is a Theocratic State
3. Theocratic state won’t have an official religion
4. 1 only
5. 2 only
6. Both 1 & 2
7. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

A state which is not secular is a Theocratic State. Theocratic state has an official religion (State religion).

1. Which of the following is a theocratic state?
2. Pakistan
3. Yemen
4. Vatican
5. Japan
6. 1, 2, 3
7. 1, 3
8. 1, 3, 4
9. 1, 2, 3, 4

Explanation

Theocratic state has an official religion (State religion), and all the high posts of the country are reserved for the followers of the religion. Pakistan, Vatican, Japan, Yemen etc., are some examples of a Theocratic State.

1. Find out the incorrect statement
2. Referendum refers to how a constitution comes into being who crafted it and their authority.
3. Indian Constitution like the Russia was drafted after a successful national movement.
4. 1 only
5. 2 only
6. Both 1 & 2
7. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Formulation refers to how a constitution comes into being, who crafted it and their authority. Indian Constitution like the United States was drafted after a successful national movement.

1. Find out the correct statement about Indian constitution?
2. The Constitution of India has the legitimacy
3. It has been drafted by a constituent assembly consisting of people’s representations.
4. The Constitution of India reflected the consensus of least of the sections of people in India during Independence
5. B and C

Explanation

The Constitution of India has the legitimacy since it has been drafted by a constituent assembly consisting of people’s representations. The Constitution of India reflected the consensus of most of the sections of people in India during Independence. There are instances where some countries have subjected their constitution to a full-fledged referendum.

1. Consider the following statements find out the correct answer
2. Is a method of referring a question.
3. It is a set of questions to the electorate directly rather than allowing them to be settled by the people’s representatives in the legislature.
4. Referendum
5. Plebiscite
6. Recall
7. Initiate
8. Find out the correct statements
9. The referendum is often used to determine issues of morality
10. The referendum is seen as conferring legitimacy
11. 1 only
12. 2 only
13. Both 1 & 2
14. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

The referendum is also often used to determine issues of morality which divide a government of party and to settle local matters which it is thought are best left to individual areas to decide. The referendum is seen as conferring legitimacy and popular approval on an individual and sanctions absolute authority.

1. Find out the correct statement
2. Neither Indian Constitution nor the amendments made later were subjected to a referendum
3. Indian Constitution and the amendments made later were subjected to a referendum
4. 1 only
5. 2 only
6. Both 1 & 2
7. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Neither Indian Constitution nor the amendments made later were subjected to a referendum which could also be seen as a setback in Indian democracy perhaps the conditions prevailing at that time were not conducive to a referendum.

1. Which of the following country’s constitution was subjected to referendum?
2. India
3. Pakistan
4. Sri Lanka
5. Switzerland

Explanation

Neither Indian Constitution nor the amendments made later were subjected to a referendum which could also be seen as a setback in Indian democracy perhaps the conditions prevailing at that time were not conducive to a referendum. In this regard may be useful to study the working of referendum in Switzerland.

1. Find out the incorrect statement
2. An ideal constitution should accommodate the aspirations of all sections of people in society.
3. Constitutions that are discriminative based on religion, caste and language may get the overwhelming acceptance from all in the nation.
4. The fundamental laws of the structure would reveal the nature of a constitution.
5. A and C

Explanation

Constitutions that are discriminative based on religion, caste and language may not get the overwhelming acceptance from all in the nation. The fundamental laws of the structure would reveal the nature of a constitution. Any constitution could be successful only when it preserves the freedom and equality of all its citizens.

1. Find out the incorrect statement
2. The 42nd Amendment act did not made any change in the Preamble of the Indian Constitution
3. The 42nd Amendment enacted in 1972
4. 1 only
5. 2 only
6. Both 1 & 2
7. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

The 42nd Amendment act enacted in the year 1976 which enlarged the Preamble of the Indian Constitution

1. Which of the following Prime Minister enacted the 42nd Amendment in 1976?
2. Indira Gandhi
3. Rajiv Gandhi
4. Lal bahadur sashthri
5. Jawaharlal Nehru

Explanation

Former Prime Minister Indira Gandhi enacted the 42nd Amendment in 1976, during the Emergency, obviously to emphasise the latent secular and socialist ideals as inalienable sprit of the constitution.

1. The 42nd Amendment inserted which of the following in Preamble of the Indian Constitution?
2. Sovereign
3. Socialist
4. Secular
5. Unity
6. Integrity
7. 1, 3, 4
8. 2, 3, 5
9. 2, 3, 4
10. 1, 2, 3, 5

Explanation

The 42nd Amendment enlarged the Preamble of the Indian Constitution from “Sovereign Democratic Republic” to a “Sovereign, Socialist Secular Democratic Republic,” and also changed the words “unity of the nation” to “unity and integrity of the nation.”

1. The order of following words seen in Preamble is
2. Democratic
3. Socialist
4. Sovereign
5. Secular
6. Republic
7. 3, 2, 4, 1, 5
8. 2, 3, 4, 1, 5
9. 3, 2, 1, 4, 5
10. 3, 1, 2, 5, 4

Explanation

1. Find out the correct statement
2. Well-drafted constitution does not concentrate all powers in a single institution as it may lead to abuse of power by few
3. Well-drafted constitution does not concentrate all powers in a single person as it may lead to abuse of power by few
4. 1 only
5. 2 only
6. Both 1 & 2
7. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Well-drafted constitution does not concentrate all powers in a single person or a single institution as it may lead to abuse of power by few or one institution.

One method that may be incorporated to address this issue is to divide powers among different organs in a balanced way.

1. The Indian Constitution separates the power horizontally amongst which of the following institutions?
2. Legislature
3. Executive
4. Police and Army
5. Judiciary
6. 1, 3, 4
7. 1, 2, 4
8. 1, 2, 3
9. 2, 3, 4

Explanation

The Indian Constitution separates the power horizontally amongst institutions like the legislature, executive and judiciary that prevents any of the organs from subverting the Constitution and enhances its success and durability.

1. Find out the correct statement
2. Indian Constitution is not too rigid
3. Indian Constitution is too rigid
4. Indian Constitution is not too flexible
5. Indian Constitution is too flexible
6. 1, 2
7. 2, 3
8. 3, 4
9. 1, 3

Explanation

Indian Constitution is not too rigid and not too flexible, which is evident from the restrictions and flexibility in the name of the basic structure of constitution and amending provisions respectively.

1. Find out the incorrect statement
2. The Indian Constitution balanced the possibility to change the provisions
3. The framers of the Indian Constitution had ensured that it would survive during the test of times.
4. 1 only
5. 2 only
6. Both 1 & 2
7. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

A well-drafted constitution will maintain the core values and also adapt itself to changing environment. The Indian Constitution balanced the possibility to not only change the provisions but also limits on such changes. The framers of the Indian Constitution had ensured that it would survive during the test of times.

1. The Constituent Assembly held its first meeting on?
2. 7 December 1946
3. 9 December 1946
4. 11 December 1946
5. 13 December 1946

Explanation

The members of Constituent Assembly drafted the Indian Constitution. The Constituent Assembly held its first meeting on 9 December 1946.

1. The constitution assembly re assembled after partition of Pakistan as Constituent Assembly for the remaining India on?
2. 15th August 1947
3. 16th August 1947
4. 14th August 1947
5. 17th August 1947

Explanation

The members of the Provincial Legislative Assemblies indirectly elected the members of constituent assembly.

1. The Constituent Assembly was composed by the plan proposed by?
2. Cabinet Mission
3. Cripps mission
4. Wavell plan
5. Irwin pact

Explanation

The Constituent Assembly was composed of members along the lines suggested by the plan proposed by the Committee of the British Cabinet, also known as the Cabinet Mission.

1. Find out the correct statement about constituent assembly?
2. The provinces were to elect 294 members
3. While the princely states were to send a minimum of 91 seats
4. 1 only
5. 2 only
6. Both 1 & 2
7. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

The provinces were to elect 292 members while the princely states were to send a minimum of 93 seats.

1. According to cabinet mission plan Provinces and princely states or group of states were allotted seats proportional to their respective population roughly in the ratio of?
2. 1:1 million
3. 2:1 million
4. 2:2 million
5. 3:1 million

Explanation

According to this Plan- Provinces and princely states or group of states were allotted seats proportional to their respective population roughly in the ratio of 1:1 million. The provinces were to elect 292 members while the princely states were to send a minimum of 93 seats.

1. According to cabinet mission plan the seats of each province to the constituent assembly were distributed among which of the following communities
2. Hindus
3. Muslims
4. Christians
5. Sikhs
6. 1, 2, 3
7. 2, 3, 4
8. 1, 2, 4
9. 1, 2, 3, 4

Explanation

The seats of each province to the constituent assembly were distributed among three main communities, namely, the Hindus, Muslims, and Sikhs, in proportion to their respective populations in their province.

1. Members of each community in the Provisional Legislative Assembly elected their representatives to constituent assembly by the method of?
2. Proportional representation with a single transferable vote
3. Universal adult suffrage
4. Referendum or plebiscite
5. None of the above

Explanation

Members of each community in the Provisional Legislative Assembly elected their representatives to constituent assembly by the method of proportional representation with a single transferable vote. The method of selection of representatives of Princely States was to be determined by the princely states themselves.

1. How many members were present on 26 November 1949 in the constituent assembly?
2. 282
3. 280
4. 284
5. 288

Explanation

Two hundred eighty-four members were present on 26 November 1949 and appended their signature to the Constitution as finally passed.

1. The 1st meeting of the Constituent Assembly took place in Constitution Hall in?
2. Bombay
3. Bengal
4. Calcutta
5. New Delhi

Explanation

The 1st meeting of the Constituent Assembly took place in Constitution Hall, New Delhi, on Monday, the 9th December 1946, at Eleven of the Clock.

1. The title of the first debate of the constituent assembly was?
2. How to frame Indian constitution
3. Electing president of India
4. Is Universal adult suffrage possible
5. Election of Temporary Chairman
6. Who is the temporary Chairman of constituent assembly?
7. J. B. Kripalani
8. N. Madhava Rao
9. Dr.Sachchidananda Sinha
10. B. N. Rao
11. Which of the following person was requesting Dr.Sachchidananda Sinha to takethe Chair as temporary Chairman?
12. J. B. Kripalani
13. N. Madhava Rao
14. Dr.Sachchidananda Sinha
15. B. N. Rao
16. Which of the following are the members of drafting committee of constituent assembly?
17. N. Gopalswami
18. Saiyid Muhammad Saadulla
19. Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
20. Sir AlladiKrishnaswamy Ayyar
21. K.M. Munshi
22. B.L. Mitter
23. D.P. Kaitan
24. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
25. 2, 3, 4, 5, 6
26. 1, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7
27. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7
28. Find out the correct statement about constituent assembly
29. The Final meeting held on 26.01.1950
30. Final meeting held with the title of “Bringing of the Constitution”
31. 1 only
32. 2 only
33. Both 1 & 2
34. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

The Final meeting of constituent assembly held on 24.01.1950with the title of “Signing of the Constitution”.

1. Who is the Chairman of the debate “Signing of the Constitution” in constituent assembly?
2. J. B. Kripalani
3. N. Madhava Rao
4. Dr.Sachchidananda Sinha
5. Rajendra Prasad

Explanation

The Final meeting held on 24.01.1950with the title of “Signing of the Constitution” and Dr. Rajendra Prasad is the Chairman of the debate.

1. The Constituent assembly debate held between which of the following days?
2. 13th December 1946 to 24th January 1950
3. 9th December 1946 to 26th January 1950
4. 9th December 1946 to 24th January 1950
5. 11th December 1946 to 26th January 1950

Explanation

The Constituent assembly debate consists of 12 Volume and it held between 9th December 1946 to 24thJanuary 1950.

1. Which of the following are debates of constituent assembly
2. Volume I 9th December to 23rdDecember 1946
3. Volume II 20th January to 25thJanuary 1947
4. Volume III 28th April to 2nd May1947
5. Volume IV 14th July to 31nd July1947
6. Volume V 14th August to 30ndAugust 1947
7. 1, 2, 3
8. 2, 3, 4, 5
9. 1, 3, 4, 5
10. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5

Explanation

1. Find out the incorrect statement
2. The framers of the Constitution adopted the features of the Indian Constitution from single source
3. The Weimar constitution is also known as Russian constitution
4. 1 only
5. 2 only
6. Both 1 & 2
7. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

The framers of the Constitution adopted the features of the Indian Constitution from several sources. The Weimar constitution is also known as Germany constitution.

1. Match the following
2. US constitution – 1. Prerogative writs
3. Britain Constitution – 2. Independence of Judiciary
4. Canadian Constitution – 3. Directive Principles of State Policy
5. Irish Constitution – 4. Federation with a strong center
6. 1, 2, 3, 4
7. 2, 1, 4, 3
8. 4, 3, 2, 1
9. 1, 3, 2, 4

Explanation

1. Which of the following details of Indian constitution were adopted from the Government of India Act, 1935?
2. Federal provisions
3. Office of Governor
4. Judiciary
5. Public service commissions
6. 1, 2, 3
7. 2, 3, 4
8. 1, 3, 4
9. 1, 2, 3, 4

Explanation

Federal provisions, office of Governor, judiciary, public service commissions, emergency provisions, and administrative details were adopted from the Government of India Act, 1935.

1. Find out the correct statement
2. Fundamental duties, the ideal of justice in the Preamble, were on the model of the constitution of the UK
3. Fundamental duties were asserted through 44th amendment in 1978
4. 1 only
5. 2 only
6. Both 1 & 2
7. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Fundamental duties, the ideal of justice (social, economic and political) in the Preamble, were on the model of the constitution of the USSR. (Fundamental duties were asserted through 42nd amendment in 1976).

1. Which of the following were adopted from the Canadian constitution?
2. Federation with a strong centre
3. Residuary powers with the centre
4. Removal of supreme court judges
5. Concurrent list
6. 1, 2, 3
7. 1, 3, 4
8. 1, 2, 4
9. 1, 2, 3, 4

Explanation

Federation with a strong centre, residuary powers with the centre, concurrent list, the appointment of state governors by the centre and advisory jurisdiction of the Supreme Court were adopted from the Canadian constitution.

1. Match the following
2. Australian Constitution – 1. Freedom of trade
3. Weimar Constitution – 2. Suspension of Fundamental Rights during Emergency.
4. Soviet Constitution – 3. Fundamental duties
5. 1, 3, 2
6. 2, 3, 1
7. 1, 2, 3
8. 3, 2, 1

Explanation

1. Find out the correct statement
2. Republic and the ideals of liberty, equality, and fraternity in the Preamble, were adopted from the French constitution.
3. Procedure for amendment to the Constitution, and election of the members of Rajya Sabha, were on South African model.
4. 1 only
5. 2 only
6. Both 1 & 2
7. Neither 1 nor 2
8. Which constitution is considered to be the longest written constitution in the world?
9. America
10. Russia
11. South Africa
12. India

Explanation

The Indian Constitution is considered to be the longest written constitution in the world. The framers of the Constitution have borrowed provisions from several sources and several other constitutions of the world

1. Find out the correct statement
2. The Indian constitution contains different provisions for states and centre and their inter relationship.
3. The Indian Constitution contains the detailed list of individual rights as fundamental rights
4. Indian constitution contains directive principles of state policy and details of administrative procedures.
5. 1, 2
6. 2, 3
7. 1, 2, 3
8. 1, 3
9. Consider the following statements:

Assertion (A): Indian Constitution may be called rigid as well as flexible

Reason (R): The Indian Constitution is considered to be the longest written constitution in the world.

Codes:

1. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
2. Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
3. (A) is true but (R) is false
4. (A) is false but (R) is true

Explanation

Indian Constitution may be called rigid as well as flexible based on its amending procedure.

1. Find out the incorrect statement
2. People govern India through their representatives elected by the proportional representation by single transferable vote.
3. India as a sovereign country means it manages only its internal affairs freely without the interference of any external factors.
4. India as a sovereign country means it manages its internal and external affairs freely without the interference of any external factors.
5. 2, 3
6. 1, 2
7. 1, 3
8. 1, 2, 3

Explanation

People govern India through their representatives elected by the universal adult franchise. India as a sovereign country means it manages its internal and external affairs freely without the interference of any external factors.

1. Find out the correct statement
2. The term socialist was added to the Indian Constitution through the 42nd Amendment in 1976.
3. Socialism in Indian context means achievement of socialist goals through democratic evolutionary and violent means.
4. In India, we follow the mixed model of the socialist and communist economy
5. B and C

Explanation

Socialism in Indian context means achievement of socialist goals through democratic, evolutionary and non-violent means. In India, we follow the mixed model of the socialist and capitalist economy.

1. Find out the correct statement
2. Secularism in Indian context means that it recognizes all religions equally with having one state religion.
3. Republic in Indian context means the head of the state in India is not elected
4. 1 only
5. 2 only
6. Both 1 & 2
7. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Secularism in Indian context means that it recognizes all religions equally without having any state religion. Republic in Indian context means the head of the state in India is elected and not the monarch.

1. What is called the Parliamentary system?
2. Parliament controls the functioning of the Council of Ministers
3. Parliament controls the functioning of the president
4. Council of Ministers controlling functioning of parliament
5. Council of Ministers controlling the cabinet

Explanation

Parliament controls the functioning of the Council of Ministers, and hence it is called the Parliamentary system.

1. Find out the correct statement about a parliamentary system of government
2. The executive is responsible to the legislature
3. The executive remains in power only when it enjoys the confidence of the majority legislators
4. The legislature is responsible to the executive
5. 1, 2
6. 2, 3
7. 1, 3
8. 1, 2, 3

Explanation

In a parliamentary system of government, (i.e.) the executive is responsible to the legislature and remains in power only when it enjoys the confidence of the majority legislators.

1. Find out the correct statement about president
2. Remaining in office for a four-year duration
3. President is the nominal
4. He is titular head
5. He is the constitutional head
6. 1, 2, 3
7. 2, 3, 4
8. 1, 2, 4
9. 1, 2, 3, 4

Explanation

The President of India, remaining in office for a five-year duration, is the nominal, titular or constitutional head, and the executive head

1. Find out the incorrect statement
2. The Prime Minister in India is the nominal executive
3. Vice President is head of the Council of Ministers
4. Council of Ministers are collectively responsible to the Rajya Sabha.
5. 1, 2
6. 2, 3
7. All the above
8. None of the above

Explanation

The Prime Minister in India is the real executive and head of the Council of Ministers who are collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha.

1. Find out the correct statement
2. The Prime Minister in India is the head of the state
3. The President in India is the head of the government
4. 1 only
5. 2 only
6. Both 1 & 2
7. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

The Prime Minister in India is the head of the government. The President in India is the head of the state.

1. Find out the incorrect statement
2. Indian Constitution has the provision for dual citizenship
3. Dual citizenship in India is provided by the union
4. 1 only
5. 2 only
6. Both 1 & 2
7. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Constitution has the provision for single citizenship provided by the union and recognized by all the states across India.

1. Find out the correct statement
2. The Constitution of India establishes political equality in India through the method of the universal adult franchise
3. The universal adult franchise operates with the principle of ‘one person many vote’
4. 1 only
5. 2 only
6. Both 1 & 2
7. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

The Constitution of India establishes political equality in India through the method of the universal adult franchise which operates with the principle of ‘one person one vote.

1. Find out the correct statement about universal adult suffrage
2. All Indians who are twenty one years of age or above is entitled to vote in the elections.
3. There is no discrimination in voting rights for the citizens of India based on caste, gender, race except religion
4. 1 only
5. 2 only
6. Both 1 & 2
7. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

All Indians who are eighteen years of age or above is entitled to vote in the elections. There is no discrimination in voting rights for the citizens of India based on caste, religion, gender, race or status.

1. Which of the following are salient features of Indian constitution
2. Longest Written Constitution
3. Parliamentary System of Government
4. Single Citizenship
5. Universal Adult Franchise
6. A unique blend of rigidity and flexibility
7. 1, 2, 3, 4
8. 2, 3, 4, 5
9. 1, 3, 4, 5
10. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
11. Find out the correct statement
12. In India, the judicial system is a non-autonomous organ
13. Indian judiciary is kept free from the influence and intervention of the executive only
14. The integrated Indian judicial system has the Supreme Court at the apex, the high courts and lower courts are subordinate to it
15. A and B

Explanation

In India, the judicial system is an autonomous organ kept free from the influence and intervention of the executive and the legislature in exercising its functions. The integrated Indian judicial system has the Supreme Court at the apex, the high courts and lower courts are subordinate to it.

1. Find out the correct statement about fundamental rights
2. Fundamental Rights are significant provisions of the Indian Constitution
3. Fundamental rights are violable
4. Fundamental Rights in India cannot be suspended during emergencies
5. 2, 3
6. 1 only
7. 1, 2 only
8. 1, 2, 3

Explanation

Fundamental Rights are significant provisions of the Indian Constitution and are inviolable and normal times. Fundamental Rights in India can be suspended during emergencies

1. Find out the incorrect statement about fundamental rights
2. It cannot be amended by extra ordinary means.
3. The provisions of Fundamental Rights are non -enforceable in the court of law when it is violated.
4. 1 only
5. 2 only
6. Both 1 & 2
7. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Fundamental Rights can be amended by extra ordinary means. The provisions of Fundamental Rights are enforceable in the court of law when it is violated.

1. Which of the following amendment act inserted Article 21-A in the Constitution of India?
2. 82 nd amendment act
3. 86 th amendment act
4. 76 th amendment act
5. 72 nd amendment act

Explanation

Eighty – Sixth Amendment Act, 2002 inserted Article 21-A in the Constitution of India.

1. Eighty – Sixth Amendment Act provided free education to age group of ?
2. 6- 12 years
3. 6-14 years
4. 6-18 years
5. 6-21 years

Explanation

The Indian Constitution (Eighty – Sixth Amendment) Act, 2002 inserted Article 21-A in the Constitution of India to provide free and compulsory education to all children in the age group of six to fourteen years as a Fundamental Right in such a manner as the State may, by law, determine.

1. The Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education Act enacted in?
2. 2007
3. 2009
4. 2008
5. 2004

Explanation

The Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education (RTE) Act, 2009, which represents the consequential legislation envisaged under Article 21-A, means that every child has a right to full-time elementary education of satisfactory and equitable quality in a formal school which satisfies certain essential norms and standards.

1. Find out the correct statement about Directive Principles of State Policy
2. Fifth part of the Indian Constitution titled the Directive Principles of State Policies
3. These are enforceable in the court of law
4. 1 only
5. 2 only
6. Both 1 & 2
7. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Fourth part of the Indian Constitution titled the Directive Principles of State Policies provides the guidelines to be followed by the states regarding governance and are not enforceable in the court of law.

1. Fundamental Duties were added to the Indian Constitution through which of the following amendment act?
2. 44nd Amendment Act
3. 42nd Amendment Act
4. 48nd Amendment Act
5. 46nd Amendment Act

Explanation

Fundamental Duties were added to the Indian Constitution through the 42nd Amendment.

1. Find out the incorrect statement
2. Fundamental duties provided in part IV of the constitution
3. Article 51 is deals about fundamental duties
4. 1 only
5. 2 only
6. Both 1 & 2
7. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Fundamental duties provided in part IVA Article 51A are moral conscience which ought to be followed by the Indian Citizens.

1. Find out the correct statement
2. India is an indestructible Union with indestructible states
3. India is a destructible Union with destructible states
4. India is a destructible Union with indestructible states
5. India is an indestructible Union with destructible states

Explanation

India is an indestructible Union with destructible states which means it acquires a unitary character during the time of emergency.

1. Find out the incorrect statement about India
2. The Union is strictly a federal polity
3. Though federal in form, the Indian Constitution, is both unitary as well as federal according to the requirements of the times and the circumstances.
4. 1 only
5. 2 only
6. Both 1 & 2
7. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

The Union is not strictly a federal polity but a quasi-federal polity with some vital elements of unitariness. Though federal in form, the Indian Constitution, unlike other federal Constitutions, is both unitary as well as federal according to the requirements of the times and the circumstances.

1. Find out the correct statement
2. The Constitution recognizes the need to provide for the review of the judgment
3. The Constitution does no recognizes the need to provide for the review of the judgment
4. 1 only
5. 2 only
6. Both 1 & 2
7. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

The Constitution recognizes the need to provide for the review of the judgment or the order of the Supreme Court by itself.

1. The Supreme Court has the power to review any judgment pronounced or made by it under which of the following article?
2. Article 142
3. Article 32
4. Article 145
5. Article 121

Explanation

Subject to the provisions of any law made by Parliament or any rules made by the Supreme Court under Artical.145, the Supreme Court has the power to review any judgment pronounced or made by it.

1. Which of the following is a prominent feature of our constitution
2. The independent judiciary
3. Judicial review
4. 1 only
5. 2 only
6. Both 1 & 2
7. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

The independent judiciary in India with the power of judicial review is a prominent feature of our constitution

1. Which of the following is a remarkable achievement of the framers of our Constitution?
2. Parliamentary Sovereignty
3. Written Constitution
4. Judicial Review
5. 1, 2
6. 2, 3
7. 1, 2, 3
8. 1, 3

Explanation

The harmonization which our Constitution has effected between Parliamentary Sovereignty and a written Constitution with a provision for Judicial Review is a remarkable achievement of the framers of our Constitution.

1. Find out the incorrect statement
2. Citizenship identifies those who are the lawful members of a country.
3. The Citizenship Act, 1945 regulates the acquisition of citizenship after the adoption of the Indian Constitution
4. 1 only
5. 2 only
6. Both 1 & 2
7. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Citizenship identifies those who are the lawful members of a country. The Citizenship Act, 1955 regulates the determination and acquisition of citizenship after the adoption of the Indian Constitution

1. The Indian Constitution provides for citizenship by?
2. Birth
3. Descent
4. Registration
5. Naturalization
6. 1, 2, 3
7. 2, 3, 4
8. 1, 2, 4
9. 1, 2, 3, 4

Explanation

The Indian Constitution provides for citizenship by birth, descent, registration, naturalization and by incorporation of territory

1. Find out the correct statement
2. The Constitution provides for renunciation of citizenship under certain circumstances.
3. The Constitution does not provides for termination of citizenship under certain circumstances.
4. The Constitution contains provisions regarding registration of Overseas Citizens of India and their rights.
5. A and C

Explanation

The Constitution also provides for renunciation and termination of citizenship under certain circumstances. The Constitution contains provisions regarding registration of Overseas Citizens of India and their rights.

1. Find out the incorrect statement
2. The Citizenship (Amendment) Bill, 2015 was introduced in Rajya Sabha
3. It was introduced by the Minister of State, Ministry of defense, on February 27, 2015
4. This bill amends the Citizenship Act, 2003
5. 1, 2
6. 2, 3
7. 1, 3
8. 1, 2, 3

Explanation

The Citizenship (Amendment) Bill, 2015 was introduced in Lok Sabha by the Minister of State, Ministry of Home Affairs, on February 27, 2015 that amends the Citizenship Act, 1955.

1. Find out the correct statement about The Citizenship (Amendment) Act, 2015?
2. A person may apply for a certificate of naturalization if they have resided in India for twelve months immediately preceding the date of application.
3. The Bill allows the Central Government to relax the requirement of twelve months stay or service if extraordinary circumstances exist.
4. 1 only
5. 2 only
6. Both 1 & 2
7. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

The Act allows a person to apply for citizenship by registration or naturalization if they fulfill specific qualifications. A person may apply for a certificate of naturalization if they have resided in India or have served the Government in India for twelve months immediately preceding the date of application. The Bill allows the Central Government to relax the requirement of twelve months stay or service if extraordinary circumstances exist.

1. The provisions for Fundamental Rights are mentioned in which Part of the Indian Constitution?
2. Part 4
3. Part 3
4. Part 4A
5. Part 5

Explanation

The Constitution of India asserts the basic principle that every individual is entitled to enjoy certain essential rights

1. Fundamental Rights as categorized into?
2. Right to Equality
3. Right to Freedom
4. Right to Exploitation
5. Right to Freedom of Religion
6. 1, 2, 3
7. 1, 2, 4
8. 2, 3, 4
9. 1, 2, 3, 4

Explanation

Fundamental Rights as categorized into six heads, firstly Right to Equality, secondly Right to Freedom, thirdly Right against Exploitation, fourthly Right to Freedom of Religion, fifthly Cultural and Educational Rights and lastly Right to Constitutional Remedies.

1. A provision for Right to Property was under _____ Article which was also a Fundamental Right?
2. Article 30
3. Article 31
4. Article 31 A
5. Article 29

Explanation

Initially there was a provision for Right to Property under Article-31 which was also a Fundamental Right.

1. Which of the following Amendment Act had omitted Right to Property from the Fundamental Rights Part?
2. The 46th Amendment Act
3. The 45th Amendment Act
4. The 44th Amendment Act
5. The 48th Amendment Act

Explanation

Initially there was a provision for Right to Property under Article-31 which was also a Fundamental Right. The 44th Amendment Act, 1978 had omitted Right to Property from the Fundamental Rights Part

1. Right to property was added in which of the following article of constitution?
2. Article 302A
3. Article 300
4. Article 300A
5. Article 308

Explanation

The 44th Amendment Act, 1978 had omitted Right to Property from the Fundamental Rights Part and added it as Article 300A therefore considered as a legal right.

1. Find out the correct statement
2. Fundamental rights provided in Part III of the Indian Constitution are judicially non-enforceable
3. Thereby the individual cannot move the judiciary, if there is a violation on any of these rights
4. 1 only
5. 2 only
6. Both 1 & 2
7. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Fundamental rights provided in Part III of the Indian Constitution are judicially enforceable, thereby the individual can move the judiciary, if there is a violation on any of these rights

1. The right to move straight to the Supreme Court for the enforcement of fundamental rights is under?
2. Article 32
3. Article 33
4. Article 34
5. Article 35
6. Article 32 provides for which of the following?
7. Right against Exploitation
8. Right to Freedom of Religion
9. Cultural and Educational Rights
10. Right to Constitutional Remedies

Explanation

The right to move straight to the Supreme Court for the enforcement of fundamental rights is under 32 that is named as Right to Constitutional Remedies.

1. Find out the incorrect statement
2. All Fundamental rights in India are absolute
3. Fundamental rights in India are however not absolute
4. 1 only
5. 2 only
6. Both 1 & 2
7. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Fundamental rights in India are however not absolute and rational restrictions can be imposed keeping in view of the security requirements of the state. It ensures political justice for the people.

100. Which of the following are salient features of Indian constitution?

1. Independent and Integrated Judicial System
2. Fundamental Rights
3. Directive Principles of State Policy
4. Fundamental Duties
5. Federal or Unitary
6. Balancing Parliamentary Supremacy with Judicial Review
7. 1, 3, 4, 5
8. 1, 2, 3, 4, 6
9. 2, 3, 4, 5
10. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6

101. Universal Declaration of Human Rights is a document adopted in?

1. 1946
2. 1948
3. 1947
4. 1950

Explanation

102. Find out the incorrect statement

1. One of the unique provisions of the Indian Constitution is the chapter on Directive Principles of State Policy.
2. These principles are like directives to the government to implement them for establishing social and political justice in India.
3. 1 only
4. 2 only
5. Both 1 & 2
6. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

One of the unique provisions of the Indian Constitution is the chapter on Directive Principles of State Policy. These principles are like directives to the government to implement them for establishing social and economic justice in India.

103. Directive Principles of State Policy comprises which of the following

1. Equal pay for men only
2. Free and compulsory primary education
3. Right to work
4. 1, 2
5. 2, 3
6. 1, 3
7. 1, 2, 3

Explanation

It comprises significant provisions for equal pay for both men and women, free and compulsory primary education, and right to work.

104. Organization of village panchayat is a provision in?

1. Part 2
2. Part 3
3. Part 4
4. Part 4A

105. Part IV of the Indian Constitution also has provision for

1. Public assistance in case of old age
2. Sickness and disablement
3. Adequate means to livelihood
4. 1, 2
5. 2, 3
6. 3, 1
7. 1, 2, 3

Explanation

Part IV of the Indian Constitution also has provision for public assistance in case of old age, unemployment, sickness and disablement, the organization of village Panchayats, adequate means to livelihood, special privilege to the economically backward sections of the people and distribution of wealth

106. Find out the correct statement

1. The provisions given in the Directive Principles of State Policy is always justifiable
2. The provisions given in the Directive Principles of State Policy is sometimes justifiable
3. 1 only
4. 2 only
5. Both 1 & 2
6. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Most of these principles could help in making India a welfare state. Though the provisions given in the Directive Principles of State Policy is not justifiable, these principles are considered very significant in the governance of the country.

107. Who said “My idea of Gram Swaraj is that it is a complete republic, independent of its neighbours for its own vital wants and yet interdependent for many others in which dependence is necessary.

1. B.R. Ambedkar
2. Mahatma Gandhi
3. Jawaharlal Nehru
4. J.B. Kriplani

108. Find out the incorrect statement

1. Ambedkar wanted the central government to have minimal power, and he wanted the villages to rule themselves traditionally with village chiefs and councilors.
2. According to Gandhi, village possessed a cruel reality of communalism and caste system; thus it will lead to the cornering of minorities.
3. 1 only
4. 2 only
5. Both 1 & 2
6. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Gandhi wanted the central government to have minimal power, and he wanted the villages to rule themselves traditionally with village chiefs and councilors. According to Ambedkar, village possessed a cruel reality of communalism and caste system; thus it will lead to the cornering of minorities.

109. Find out the correct statements said by Gandhi about panchayat raj

1. Gandhi through his social and political initiatives facilitated the country to realize that the power of people which could be facilitated only through effective local self-government.
2. “I shall work for an India in which the poorest shall feel that it is their country, in whose making they have an effective voice.”
3. Gandhi time and again emphasized need for power in the hands of the people in India through the Panchayat Raj model
4. 1, 2
5. 2, 3
6. 1, 3
7. 1, 2, 3

110. Who said, “The greater the power of the people, the better for the people.”

1. Gandhi
2. Nehru
3. Ambedkar
4. Patel

111. Who said villages were nothing “but a sink of localism, a den of ignorance and communalism.”

1. Nehru
2. Patel
3. Bose
4. Ambedkar

112. Find out the correct statement

1. Constitution that was drafted under Chairmanship of ambedkar did not mention a word about Panchayati Raj.
2. Constitution that was drafted under Chairmanshi of ambedkar mentions word about Panchayati Raj.
3. 1 only
4. 2 only
5. Both 1 & 2
6. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

For Ambedkar, those villages were nothing “but a sink of localism, a den of ignorance and communalism.” The dominant and influential communities would make villages their monopoly and that would render other communities voiceless. The result was that the Constitution that was drafted under his Chairmanship did not mention a word about Panchayat Raj.

113. Provision for the village panchayats present in which part of Indian constitution?

1. Part 3
2. Part 4
3. Part 6
4. Part 7

Explanation

Many Gandhians persuaded the committee to have a provision for the village panchayats in Part IV of the Indian Constitution titled Directive Principle of State Policy vesting the responsibility in State legislatures.

114. Which of the following article states that the State shall take steps to organize village panchayat?

1. Article 44
2. Article 40
3. Article 42
4. Article 43

Explanation

Article 40 states that the State shall take steps to organize village panchayat and endow them with such powers and authority as may be necessary to enable them to function as units of self -government.

115. Find out the fundamental duties of Indian constitution

1. Respect the National Flag and the National Anthem
2. To cherish and follow the noble ideals
3. To uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity, and integrity of Indi
4. To defend the country
5. 1, 2, 3
6. 2, 3, 4
7. 1, 3, 4
8. 1, 2, 3, 4

Explanation

Part IVA of Indian Constitution defines as Fundamental duties. (51A) – It shall be the duty of every citizen of India – (a) To abide by the Constitution and respect its ideals and institutions, the National Flag and the National Anthem; (b) To cherish and follow the noble ideals which inspired our national struggle for freedom; (c) To uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity, and integrity of India; (d) To defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so.

116. Which of the following is not a fundamental duty of Indian constitution?

1. To promote harmony and the spirit of universal brotherhood amongst all the people of India
2. To practice derogatory to the dignity of women
3. To value and preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture
4. To protect and improve the natural environment

Explanation

To promote harmony and the spirit of universal brotherhood amongst all the people of India transcending religious, linguistic and regional or sectional diversities; to renounce practices derogatory to the dignity of women; To value and preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture; To protect and improve the natural environment including forests, lakes, rivers, and wildlife, and to have compassion for living creatures.

117. Find out the fundamental duties of Indian constitution

1. To develop the scientific temper, humanism
2. To safeguard public property
3. To strive towards excellence in all spheres of individual and collective activity
4. Parent to provide opportunities for education to his child between the age of six and eighteen years.
5. 1, 3, 4
6. 2, 3, 4
7. 1, 2, 3
8. 1, 2, 3, 4

Explanation

To develop the scientific temper, humanism and the spirit of inquiry and reform; To safeguard public property and to abjure violence; To strive towards excellence in all spheres of individual and collective activity so that the nation constantly rises to higher levels of endeavour and achievement; Who is a parent or guardian to provide opportunities for education to his child or, as the case may be, ward between the age of six and fourteen years.

118. The Parliament of the Union consists of

1. The President
2. Rajya Sabha
3. Lok Sabha
4. 1, 2
5. 2, 3 only
6. 1, 2, 3
7. 1, 3

Explanation

Under Article 79, the Parliament of the Union consists of the President and two Houses known respectively as the Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha.

119. Find out the correct statement

1. The Council of States is called as Lok Sabha
2. The House of the People is otherwise known as Rajya Sabha
3. 1 only
4. 2 only
5. Both 1 & 2
6. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

The Council of States is called as Rajya Sabha. The House of the People is otherwise known as Lok Sabha.

120. Find out the correct statement

1. The Union Legislature is bicameral
2. The need for a bicameral system of the legislature in a federation is admitted
3. The Upper House represents the units
4. 1, 2
5. 2, 3
6. 1, 3
7. 1, 2, 3

Explanation

The Union Legislature is bicameral, and the need for a bicameral system of the legislature in a federation is admitted: the Upper House represents the units, the Lower House represents the people; the two Houses respectively at once functioning to preserve the integrity of the units and to secure the integration of the Union.

121. Find out the correct statement about Rajya sabha

1. Consists of 250 members
2. The President nominates 13 in the manner provided.
3. The remaining 237 members will be the representatives of the States and the Union territories.
4. B and C

Explanation

The Rajya Sabha consists of 250 members, where the President nominates twelve in the manner provided. The remaining 238 members will be the representatives of the States and the Union territories.

122. Find out the correct statement about Lok Sabha

1. Consists of 543 members chosen by direct election from territorial constituencies in the States
2. Not more than twenty-five members to represent the Union territories
3. 1 only
4. 2 only
5. Both 1 & 2
6. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

The Lok Sabha consists of 543 members chosen by direct election from territorial constituencies in the States and not more than twenty-five members to represent the Union territories selected in such manner as Parliament may by law provide.

123. Find out the correct statement about president

1. Elected by members of an electoral college consisting of the elected and nominated members of both Houses of Parliament
2. Elected by members of an electoral college consisting of the elected members Legislative Assemblies of States/UTs.
3. Term of president is Six Years.
4. A and C

Explanation

The president of India is elected by members of an electoral college consisting of the elected members of both Houses of Parliament and Legislative Assemblies of States/UTs. Term: Five Years.

124. Find out the correct statement about president

1. Term of president is Five Years.
2. The term is fixed and not Subject to impeachment by Parliament.
3. 1 only
4. 2 only
5. Both 1 & 2
6. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Term of president is subject to impeachment by Parliament.

125. Find out the correct statement about Rajya Sabha

1. A permanent body subject to dissolution.
2. One fourth of members retire biennially after completing a term of six years
3. 1 only
4. 2 only
5. Both 1 & 2
6. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

A permanent body not subject to dissolution. However, one third of members retire biennially after completing a term of six years.

126. Find out the incorrect statement about lok sabha

1. The term of lok sabha is Five years.
2. It is subject to dissolution by Prime Minister of India.
3. 1 only
4. 2 only
5. Both 1 & 2
6. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

127. Rajya Sabha, a nomenclature that was announced by the Chair on?

1. 23rd August 1954
2. 21st July 1953
3. 26th January 1950
4. 24th December 1956

Explanation

The ‘Council of States’ which is also known as Rajya Sabha, a nomenclature that was announced by the Chair on 23rd of August 1954 as its distinguishable feature.

128. The origin of the second Chamber can be traced to the?

1. Montague Chelmsford Report
2. Minto Morely reforms
3. Cabinet mission plan
4. Gandhi Irwin pact

Explanation

Rajya Sabha is the second chamber of the Parliament. The origin of the second Chamber can be traced to the Montague Chelmsford Report.

129. Montague Chelmsford Report otherwise known as?

1. The Government of India Act, 1909
2. The Government of India Act, 1935
3. The Government of India Act, 1919
4. The Government of India Act, 1947

130. The Government of India Act, 1919 provided for the creation of second chamber of the then legislature which came into existence in?

1. 1922
2. 1921
3. 1923
4. 1924

Explanation

The Government of India Act, 1919 provided for the creation of a ‘Council of State’ as a second chamber of the then legislature with a restricted franchise which came into existence in 1921.

131. Find out the incorrect statement

1. The Prime Minister of Britain was the ex-officio President of the then Council of State.
2. The Government of India Act, 1935, hardly made any changes in its composition
3. 1 only
4. 2 only
5. Both 1 & 2
6. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

The Governor-General was the ex-officio President of the then Council of State. The Government of India Act, 1935, hardly made any changes in its composition.

132. Find out the correct statement

1. An extensive debate took place in the Constituent Assembly regarding Second Chamber
2. Constituent Assembly decided to have a bicameral legislature due to a vast country with immense diversities
3. 1 only
4. 2 only
5. Both 1 & 2
6. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Composition: 250 Members: 238 representing states/UTs and 12 nominated by President of India. Term: A permanent body not subject to dissolution. However, one third of members retire biennially after completing a term of six years.

133. Find out the correct statements about rajya sabha

1. Rajya Sabha is a federal chamber where 245 members are elected by the both elected members of Assemblies of the States and Union Territories.
2. Rajya Sabha is a federal chamber where 238 members are elected by the elected members of Assemblies of the States and Union Territories.
3. 1 only
4. 2 only
5. Both 1 & 2
6. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Rajya Sabha is a federal chamber where 238 members are elected by the elected members of Assemblies of the States and Union Territories. Apart from elected, the President can nominate 12 members to Rajya Sabha, thus making a total of 250

134. Who acts as the Chairman of Rajya Sabha?

1. President
2. Vice- President
3. Prime minister
4. Attorney general

135. Find out the correct statement

1. The Vice-President acts as the Chairman of Rajya Sabha.
2. In the absence of Vice-President, the deputy chairman takes the place of the chairman
3. In the absence of Vice-President, the deputy prime minister takes the place of the chairman
4. A and B

Explanation

The Vice-President acts as the Chairman of Rajya Sabha. In his absence, the deputy chairman takes the place of the chairman who is elected by the members of Rajya Sabha

136. The 1st sitting of Rajya Sabha was held on?

1. 11th July 1953
2. 26th January 1950
3. 13th May 1952
4. 12th October 1956

Explanation

The 1st sitting of Rajya Sabha was held on 13th May 1952, unlike Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha can never be dissolved.

137. Find out the various discussions which will held in rajya sabha?

1. Half an hour discussion
2. Short duration discussion
3. Motions of matters in public interests.
4. 1, 2
5. 2, 3
6. 3, 1
7. 1, 2, 3

138. Find out the correct statements

1. The Conduct of Business in Rajya Sabha is the booklet that provides implicit conduct of its members.
2. The Rules of Procedure in Rajya Sabha is the booklet that provides implicit conduct of its members.
3. 1 only
4. 2 only
5. Both 1 & 2
6. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

The Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Rajya Sabha is the booklet that provides explicit conduct of its members. There are various discussions namely: half an hour discussion, short duration discussion and motions of matters in public interests.

139. The official language act came in the year?

1. 1961
2. 1962
3. 1963
4. 1964

140. Which article says that official Language of the Union shall be Hindi?

1. Article 342
2. Article 343
3. Article 344
4. Article 341

Explanation

The official Languages Bill, 1963, was introduced, because Article 343 of the Constitution stated categorically that the Official Language of the Union shall be Hindi after 1963.

141. Two national anthems, Vande Mataram and Jana gana mana these two national anthems come from?

1. Hindi
2. Bengali
3. Marathi
4. Tamil

Explanation

The government has accepted two national anthems, Vande Mataram and Jana gana mana. Neither of these two national anthems is in the Hindi language.They come from Bengali.

142. Find out the correct statement

1. Hindi has got the claim to become the official language
2. When Hindi became the official language of India it was spoken by 42 percent of the population
3. 1 only
4. 2 only
5. Both 1 & 2
6. Neither 1 nor 2

143. Hindi is spoken in which of the following states

1. U. P
2. Bihar
3. Rajasthan
4. Madhya Pradesh
5. 1, 2, 3
6. 2, 3, 4
7. 1, 3, 4
8. 1, 2, 3, 4

144. Find out the correct sessions of rajya sabha

1. First Session – Monsoon Session
2. Second Session – Winter Session
3. Third Session – Budget Session
4. 1, 2
5. 2, 3
6. All the above
7. None of the above

Explanation

Generally, during a year, three sessions of the Rajya Sabha are held, as follows: First Session (Budget Session. Second Session (Monsoon Session). Third Session (Winter Session).

145. Match the following

1. Monsson Session – Mid or late February and mid-May
2. Budget Session – Mid-July to end of August
3. Winter Session – End of November to end of December
4. 1, 2, 3
5. 3, 2, 1
6. 2, 1, 3
7. 1, 3, 2

Explanation

Generally, during a year, three sessions of the Rajya Sabha are held, as follows: First Session (Budget Session) is held between mid or late February and mid-May. Second Session (Monsoon Session) is generally held in mid-July to end of August. Third Session (Winter Session) is held from the end of November to end of December.

146. “India, that is Bharat, shall be a Union of States” described in?

1. Article 1(2)
2. Article 1(1)
3. Article 1(3)
4. Article 1(4)

147. Who introduced caste based education system in Tamil Nadu?

1. Kamarajar
2. Rajagopalachari
3. C.N. Annadurai
4. Nedunchezhiyan

148. The first Assembly in Tamil Nadu under the constitution of India held between?

1. 1950-1955
2. 1952-1957
3. 1951-1956
4. 1955-1960

Explanation

The first Assembly (1952-1957) under the constitution of India discussed the scheme of elementary education launched by the Rajaji Government and criticized by many including a few in the Congress party that it would perpetuate caste-based social hierarchy.

149. Who scrapped the caste based education system introduced by Rajaji in Tamil Nadu?

1. Kamarajar
2. Rajagopalachari
3. C.N. Annadurai
4. Nedunchezhiyan

150. Who was the education Minister during the period when Kamarajar was chief minister?

1. Omandur Ramasamy
2. C.N. Annadurai
3. C. Subramaniam
4. Nedunchezhiyan

151. In Tamil Nadu Education Minister C. Subramaniam in_______ informed the House that the scheme caste based education would be dropped.

1. May 1954
2. July 1953
3. April 1954
4. March 1953

Explanation

After Kamaraj succeeded Rajaji, Education Minister C. Subramaniam in May 1954 informed the House that the scheme caste based education would be dropped.

152. Whose days are remembered for landmark laws to protect landless agriculturists?

1. Kamarajar
2. Rajagopalachari
3. C.N. Annadurai
4. Nedunchezhiyan

Explanation

The Rajaji days are remembered for landmark laws to protect tenants of farmlands and landless agriculturists.

153. Find out the correct statement

1. Premier of Madras Presidency, C. Rajaji presenting his first budget in 1939.
2. Location is Madras Legislative Assembly, Senate House.
3. 1 only
4. 2 only
5. Both 1 & 2
6. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Premier of Madras Presidency, C. Rajaji presenting his first budget in 1937.Location is Madras Legislative Assembly, Senate House, Chepauk Campus of Madras University Date 1937”

154. The Dravida Munnetra Kazhagam came to power in?

1. 1965
2. 1967
3. 1969
4. 1963

Explanation

In 1967, the Dravida Munnetra Kazhagam came to power.

155. Who is the first chief minister of Dravida Munnetra Kazhagam in Tamil Nadu?

1. K. Kamarajar
2. C.N. Annadurai
3. M. Karunanidhi
4. M.G. Ramachandran

Explanation

In 1967, the Dravida Munnetra Kazhagam came to power with C.N. Annadurai as Chief Minister.

156. The Hindu Marriage Act was amended in which of the following chief minister’s period?

1. K. Kamarajar
2. M. Karunanidhi
3. C.N. Annadurai
4. M.G. Ramachandran

157. Hindu Marriage Act was amended to recognize

1. Self-confidence marriages
2. Self-respect marriages
3. Self-sufficient marriages
4. Self-help marriages

Explanation

Hindu Marriage Act was amended to recognize “self-respect marriages” or those marriages free of religious rituals.

158. Who is a successor of Annadurai?

1. M. Karunanidhi
2. M.G. Ramachandran
3. J. Jayalalitha
4. Janagi Ramachandran

Explanation

C.N. Annadurai’s successor and five-time Chief Minister, M. Karunanidhi, piloted several Bills andmoved numerous motions

159. Find out the incorrect provision of former chief minister M. Karunanidhi’s last bill

1. Laws for exclusive reservation only for Christians within the quota of Backward Classes
2. Laws for exclusive reservation only for Muslims within the quota of Arundathiyars within the reservation of Scheduled Castes
3. 1 only
4. 2 only
5. Both 1 & 2
6. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

M. Karunanidhi, piloted several Bills and moved numerous motions. In his last bill (2006-2011), laws for exclusive reservation for Muslims and Christians within the quota of Backward Classes and Arundathiyars within the reservation of Scheduled Castes were made.

160. The Tamil Nadu Government, headed by M.G. Ramachandran during the period of?

1. 1977-1990
2. 1960-1987
3. 1977-1987
4. 1975-1985

Explanation

The 10-year-long rule (1977-1987) of the Government, headed by M.G. Ramachandran of the All India Anna Dravida Munnetra Kazhagam

161. Find out the correct statement

1. All IndiaAnna Dravida Munnetra Kazhagam, was noted for various measures in the area of revenue administration.
2. The system of non- hereditary village officers such as “karnam” was abolished at one stroke.
3. 1 only
4. 2 only
5. Both 1 & 2
6. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Notably, the system of hereditary village officers such as “karnam” was abolished at one stroke.

162. Who upgraded the mid-day meal scheme into Nutritious Meal Scheme?

1. M. Karunanidhi
2. M.G. Ramachandran
3. J. Jayalalitha
4. K. Kamarajar

163. Find out the correct statement

1. Tamil Nadu Legislative Assembly consists of 234 elected Members
2. Out of 234 members 188 from General and 46 from Reserved Constituencies.
3. Out of 234 members 46 from Reserved Constituencies
4. B and C

Explanation

Tamil Nadu Legislative Assembly consists of 234 elected Members from 189 General and 45 Reserved Constituencies.

164. The First Madras Legislative Assembly session was held on

1. 3rd May 1952
2. 16^th August 1954
3. 26^th December 1952
4. 7^th January 1953

Explanation

The First Madras Legislative Assembly session was held on3rd of May 1952, constituted after the General Elections in1952

165. Who nominates one Member representing from Anglo-Indian Community to the state legislative assembly?

1. Chief Minister
2. Governor
3. Speaker
4. President

166. Under which Article of the Constitution of India, the Governor nominated one Member representing from Anglo-Indian Community?

1. Article 331
2. Article 332
3. Article 333
4. Article 334

167. Find out the correct statement

1. The Fifteenth Tamil Nadu Legislative Assembly was constituted on the 21st May 2016
2. The general election to the Tamil Nadu Legislative Assembly on the 16th May 2016.
3. 1 only
4. 2 only
5. Both 1 & 2
6. Neither 1 nor 2

168. The Chairperson of the Public Accounts Committee is appointed by the?

1. Speaker
2. President
3. Prime Minister
4. Vice – President

Explanation

The Chairperson of the Public Accounts Committee is appointed by the Speaker from amongst its Members of Lok Sabha

169. Find out the incorrect statement

1. Member of the Opposition can be appointed as the Chairperson of the Public Accounts Committee
2. The Speaker, for the first time, appointed a Member of the Opposition as the Chairperson of the Public Accounts Committee for 1970-71
3. 1 only
4. 2 only
5. Both 1 & 2
6. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

The Speaker, for the first time, appointed a Member of the Opposition as the Chairperson of the Public Accounts Committee for 1967-68.

170. Find out the incorrect statement about Public Accounts Committee

1. Since the Committee became a Parliamentary Committee
2. It came under the control of the Speaker from January1960
3. It has presented 1596 Report still April 2016
4. B and C

Explanation

Since the Committee became a Parliamentary Committee under the control of the Speaker from January 1950, it has presented 1596 Report still April 2018

171. Supreme Court delivered the Mandal Commission judgment in?

1. 1991
2. 1992
3. 1993
4. 1994

Explanation

Supreme Court delivered the Mandal Commission judgment in November 1992 for reservation in education and employment at 50 percent

172. Tamil Nadu provides ______% reservation in education and employment

1. 67%
2. 69%
3. 59%
4. 70%

Explanation

After the Supreme Court delivered the Mandal Commission judgment in November 1992 for reservation in education and employment at 50 percent, the Assembly responded through legislation aimed at safeguarding the existing 69 percent quota for Backward Classes, Most Backward Classes, Scheduled Castes, and Scheduled Tribes.

173. Find out the correct statement

1. The framers of the Indian Constitution have given provisions to amend the Constitution according to the changing needs of society.
2. The Constitution has lost its ideals and basic premises because many such amendments have already taken place.
3. 1 only
4. 2 only
5. Both 1 & 2
6. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

The Constitution has not lost its ideals and basic premises though many such amendments have already taken place

174. Who is the protector of Indian constitution?

1. Supreme court of India
2. Parliament of India
3. Prime Minister of India
4. Attorney General of India

Explanation

The Indian judiciary has played a critical role in protecting the Constitution and also in interpreting the Constitution.

175. Find out the incorrect statement

1. The Indian Constitution like many other constitutions is a document that keeps evolving and not responding to changing circumstances and political upheavals.
2. The Indian Constitution continues to function as the primary framework within which the Government of India operates.
3. The framers of the Constitution were not farsighted that they didn’t provided solutions for future situations.
4. A and C

Explanation

The Indian Constitution like many other constitutions is a document that keeps evolving and responding to changing circumstances and political upheavals. The framers of the Constitution were very farsighted that they provided for many solutions for future situations.

176. Find out the correct statement

1. The Indian Constitution accepts and accommodates the necessity of modifications according to changing situations of the society.
2. There has been enough flexibility in implementing the Constitution which has made the Indian Constitution a living document than a rigid rulebook.
3. The framers of the Constitution desired it to be ‘flexible’ and at the same time ‘rigid’ and also to protect it from unnecessary and frequent changes
4. 1, 2
5. 2, 3
6. 3, 1
7. 1, 2, 3

177. Find out the correct statement

1. The basic structure of the constitution can be altered
2. The basic structure of the constitution cannot be altered
3. 1 only
4. 2 only
5. Both 1 & 2
6. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

The framers of the Constitution sought a balance to ensure that it is not a static and unalterable document and also a sacred document where the basic structure is not altered

178. Article _____ of the Indian Constitution has the provision through which Parliament may amend any provision of this Constitution

1. Article 216
2. Article 32
3. Article 368
4. Article 145

Explanation

Article 368 of the Indian Constitution has the provision through which Parliament may in the exercise of its constituent power amend by way of addition, variation or repeal any provision of this Constitution by the procedure laid down in this article

179. Find out the incorrect statement

1. The Constitution of India was framing a federal polity
2. The basic rights and powers of the States may be changed without the consent of the States
3. 1 only
4. 2 only
5. Both 1 & 2
6. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Since the Constitution was framing a federal polity, the basic rights and powers of the States may not be changed without the consent of the States.

180. Find out the correct statement

1. Some features of the Constitution were so central to the spirit of it
2. So the framers wanted to protect these from change and so made it uncompromising.
3. These considerations by the framers of the Constitution led to different ways of amending the Constitution
4. 1, 2
5. 2, 3
6. 3, 1
7. 1, 2, 3

181. The types of Constitutional Amendments are

1. A simple majority
2. Special majority
3. Effective majority
4. Absolute majority
5. 4, 3
6. 1, 2, 4
7. 1, 2
8. 2, 3, 4

Explanation

There are three types of Constitutional Amendments, they are; 1. A simple majority (requires addition) 2. Amendment can be made by a special majority of the two houses of the Parliament. 3. The third method requires a special majority of the Parliament and consent of half of the State legislatures

182. Find out the correct statement about special majority

1. 2/3 of members present and at least 75 percent of the total members
2. 2/3 of members present and at least 50 percent of the total members
3. 2/3 of members present and voting
4. 1/3 of members present and at least 70 percent of the total members

183. Find out the correct statement

1. All the types of amendments to the Constitution are initiated only in the lok sabha
2. All the types of amendments to the Constitution are initiated only in the rajya sabha
3. All the types of amendments to the Constitution are initiated in the state legislative assembly
4. 1, 2
5. 2, 3
6. All the above
7. None of the above

Explanation

All the types of amendments to the Constitution are initiated only in the Parliament

184. Find out the correct statement about amendment to the constitution

1. Based on the provisions given referendum are required for ratification of the amendment to the constitution
2. Based on the provisions given public voting are required for ratification of the amendment to the constitution
3. 1 only
4. 2 only
5. Both 1 & 2
6. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Based on the provisions given no referendum are required for ratification of the amendment to the constitution

185. Find out the incorrect statements about president’s power to constitution amendment bill

1. The amendment bill will be presented before the President for his assent.
2. The President has powers to send it back for reconsideration in such cases.
3. 1 only
4. 2 only
5. Both 1 & 2
6. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

The President has no powers to send it back for reconsideration in these cases. The elected representatives of the people are empowered to consider and take final decisions of the question of amendments.

186. Which of the following article are called by the title ‘Constitution Amendment Bills’?

1. Article 368(2)
2. Article 366
3. Article 368(5)
4. Article 32

Explanation

Bills seeking to amend all other provisions of the Constitution including those enumerated in the provisions to article 368(2) are called by the title ‘Constitution Amendment Bills’. These Bills can be introduced in either House of Parliament.

187. What is called a private member bill?

1. Minister of lok Sabha introduces the bill
2. Minister of rajya sabha introduces the bill
3. Any member other than a minister introduces a bill
4. Member of state legislative assembly introduces the bill

Explanation

If any member other than a minister introduces a bill, it is called a private member bill

188. Find out the incorrect statement

1. The private member bill cannot be introduced by ruling party MP’s
2. The private member bill can be introduced by only opposition party MP’s
3. 1 only
4. 2 only
5. Both 1 & 2
6. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

The bill can be introduced by both ruling and opposition party MP’s

189. Find out the correct statement

1. Private member bill is a bill proposed by a member who is a member of the cabinet
2. Private member bill is a bill proposed by a member who is a member of the executive
3. 1 only
4. 2 only
5. Both 1 & 2
6. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Private member bill is a bill proposed by a member who is not a member of the cabinet and executive

190. Find out the correct statement

1. The session for private member bill is held at alternative Wednesdays in Rajya sabha
2. The session held from 1 pm to 5 pm.
3. 1 only
4. 2 only
5. Both 1 & 2
6. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

The session for private member bill is held at alternative Fridays in rajya sabha from 2 pm to 6 pm.

191. Find out the incorrect statement about private member bills

1. Private members cannot introduce constitutional amendment bills
2. Private members can introduce money bills
3. 1 only
4. 2 only
5. Both 1 & 2
6. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Private members bills are accepted even those are constitutional amendment bills but not that those are money bills.

192. If the private member bill gets rejected what will happen

1. Council of minister will dissolved
2. Lok Sabha will be dissolved
3. No impact on government
4. Prime Minister will resign

Explanation

The private member bill needs a month of notice; this has no impact on the health of the government when the private member bill gets rejected.

193. Till date, parliament has passed how many private member bills?

1. 25
2. 14
3. 32
4. 8

Explanation

If any member other than a minister introduces a bill, it is called a private member bill. The bill can be introduced by both ruling and opposition party MP’s.

194. Find out the correct statement about private member bill

1. The first one was passed in 1960
2. The last one was passed on 1970
3. 1 only
4. 2 only
5. Both 1 & 2
6. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

The first one was passed in 1952. The last one was passed on 1970

195. Which of the following is first private member bill passed by parliament?

1. The Muslim Wakfs Bill, 1952
2. The Indian Registration (Amendment) Bill, 1955
3. The Parliamentary proceedings (protection of Publication) Bill, 1956
4. The code of criminal Procedure (Amendment) Bill, 1953

Explanation

The Muslim Wakfs Bill, 1952 was introduced by Syed Muchammed Ahmed Kasmi in Lok Sahha was assented on 21.05.1954

196. Which of the following is first private member bill passed by parliament?

1. The Indian Registration (Amendment) Bill, 1955
2. The Parliamentary proceedings (protection of Publication) Bill, 1956
3. The Indian Penal Code (Amendment) Bill, 1963
4. The code of criminal Procedure (Amendment) Bill, 1953

Explanation

The Indian Penal Code (Amendment) Bill, 1963 was introduced by Diwan Chaman Lall in Rajya Sabha assented on 07.09.1969

197. Which of the following private member bills are passed by parliament

1. The Ancient and Historical Monuments and Archaeological Sites and Remains (Declaration of National Importance) Bill, 1954
2. The Hindu Marriage (Amendment) Bill, 1956
3. The Orphanages and Other Charitable Homes (Supervision and Control) Bill, 1960
4. The Marine Insurance Bill, 1960
5. 1, 2, 3
6. 2, 3, 4
7. 1, 3, 4
8. 1, 2, 3, 4

198. Which of the following is not a private member bill passed by parliament?

1. The Code of Criminal Procedure (Amendment) Bill, 1968
2. The Salary and Allowances of Members of Parliament (Amendment Bill), 1957
3. The Hindu Marriage (Amendment) Bill, 1968
4. The Supreme Court (Enlargement of Criminal Appellate Jurisdiction) Bill, 1968

Explanation

The Code of Criminal Procedure (Amendment) Bill, 1964 was introduced by Subhadra Joshi in Lok Sabha assented on 26.12.1960

199. Which of the following are private member bills passed by parliament?

1. The Indian Registration (Amendment) Bill, 1955
2. The Parliamentary proceedings (protection of Publication) Bill, 1956
3. The code of criminal Procedure (Amendment) Bill, 1953
4. The Women’s and Children’s Institution (Licensing) Bill, 1954
5. 1, 2, 3
6. 2, 3, 4
7. 3, 4, 1
8. 1, 2, 3, 4

200. Out of 14 private member bills passed by parliament how many bills were introduced by rajya sabha?

1. 7
2. 6
3. 5
4. 8

Explanation

201. Find out the correct statement about discussion of private member bill

1. In Lok Sabha, the last two and half hours of a sitting on every Friday it is discussed
2. In Rajya Sabha two and half hours from 2.30 p.m. to 5.00 p.m. on every alternate Friday this bill is discussed
3. 1 only
4. 2 only
5. Both 1 & 2
6. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

202. The Rights of Transgender Persons Bill is introduced in?

1. 2012
2. 2014
3. 2016
4. 2010

Explanation

The Rights of Transgender Persons Bill is a private member bill introduced in 2014.

203. The Rights of Transgender Persons Bill, 2014 is introduced by an M.P from which of the following state?

1. Assam
2. Mumbai
3. Tamil Nadu
4. Delhi

Explanation

The Rights of Transgender Persons Bill, 2014 is a private member bill introduced by Trichy Shiva M.P. of Tamil Nadu.

204. Find out the incorrect statement about The Rights of Transgender Persons Bill, 2014

1. It seeks to end the discrimination faced by transgender people in India.
2. The Bill was passed by the upper house Rajya Sabha on 24 April 2016.
3. It was introduced in the lower house Lok Sabha on 26 February 2015
4. B and C

Explanation

The Bill was passed by the upper house Rajya Sabha on 24 April 2015.It was introduced in the lower house Lok Sabha on 26 February 2016.

205. Which of the following bill is considered historic as for being the first private member’s bill to be passed by any house in 36 years?

1. The Salary and Allowances of Members of Parliament (Amendment Bill)
2. The Rights of Transgender Persons Bill
3. The Hindu Marriage (Amendment) Bill
4. The Supreme Court (Enlargement of Criminal Appellate Jurisdiction) Bill

Explanation

206. The article 370 in the Constitution is about?

1. Jammu and Kashmir
2. North eastern states
3. Himalayan regions
4. None of the above

Explanation

The article 370 in the Constitution is about Jammu and Kashmir region given the provision which grants special autonomous status.

207. As per article 370 the central government can make law in which of the following?

1. Defence
2. Foreign affairs
3. Communication
4. Finance
5. 1, 2, 3
6. 2, 3, 4
7. 1, 3, 4
8. 1, 2, 3, 4

Explanation

According to article 370, except defence, foreign affairs, communication, and finance, the central government requires the State Government’s permission for applying all other laws

208. As per article 370, Jammu and Kashmir has separate set of laws relating to which of the following?

1. Property right
2. Citizenship
3. Fundamental right
4. 1, 3
5. 2, 3
6. 2, 1
7. 1, 2, 3

Explanation

As per article 370 the State and its residents have a separate set of laws relating citizenship, property right and fundamental right from other citizens of India.

209. Find out the correct statement about article 370 relating to Jammu and Kashmir

1. The centre has power to impose financial emergency over the State
2. The centre has no power to impose financial emergency over the State.
3. 1 only
4. 2 only
5. Both 1 & 2
6. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Article 370- The centre has no power to impose financial emergency through article 360 over the State.

210. Find out the correct statement about article 370- Jammu and Kashmir

1. An emergency is declared only during the time of war and external aggression.
2. The central government can declare an emergency for a case of internal disturbance
3. 1 only
4. 2 only
5. Both 1 & 2
6. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Article 370- The centre has no power to impose financial emergency through article 360 over the State. Therefore the central government cannot declare an emergency for a case of internal disturbance or other dangers unless the state requests the centre.

211. Find out the incorrect statement about Article 370

1. Except for defense, foreign affairs, finance and communication, all other laws passed by Indian Parliament need to be okay by the state government before they are made applicable.
2. This was specified in the Instrument of Instruction signed by Maharaja Hari Singh
3. 1 only
4. 2 only
5. Both 1 & 2
6. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Except for defense, foreign affairs, finance and communication, all other laws passed by Indian Parliament need to be okay by the state government before they are made applicable. This was specified in the Instrument of Accession signed by Maharaja Hari Singh.

212. Instrument of Accession signed by Maharaja Hari Singh in?

1. 1946
2. 1947
3. 1948
4. 1949

Explanation

The Instrument of Accession signed by Maharaja Hari Singh (inset) when he agreed to join the Union of India in 1947, instead of going with Pakistan.

213. Find out the correct statement about Jammu and Kashmir

1. Jammu and Kashmir are governed by state-specific laws which come under the Constitution of Jammu and Kashmir
2. The first Article of the Constitution of Jammu and Kashmir says that the state is and will remain as a sub state of India.
3. 1 only
4. 2 only
5. Both 1 & 2
6. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

As a result of article 370, the citizens of Jammu and Kashmir are governed by state-specific laws which come under the Constitution of Jammu and Kashmir, instead of those for the rest of India, especially where citizenship, ownership of property and some fundamental rights are concerned. The first Article of the Constitution of Jammu and Kashmir says that the state is and will remain and integral part of India.

214. The provisions of Jammu and Kashmir was further ratified in?

1. 1972
2. 1974
3. 1976
4. 1970

Explanation

The first Article of the Constitution of Jammu and Kashmir says that the state is and will remain and integral part of India. This article, along with Article 5 that defines the contours of jurisdiction of Indian Parliament regarding law making for the state, cannot be amended. This arrangement was further ratified in 1974.

215. The provisions and arrangements of article 370 was further ratified by the 1974 agreement between?

1. Jawaharlal Nehru and Sheikh Abdullah
2. Indira Gandhi and Hari Singh
3. Lal bahadur and Hari Singh
4. Indira Gandhi and Sheikh Abdullah

Explanation

This arrangement of article 370 was further ratified by the 1974 agreement between the then Prime Minister Indira Gandhi and the then J&K Prime Minister Sheikh Abdullah

216. The then J&K Prime Minister Sheikh Abdullah was appointed by?

1. Gulab Singh
2. Hari Singh
3. Pratap Singh
4. Ranbir Singh

217. Which of the following specified that J&K should have its own flag in addition to the Union flag?

1. Delhi agreement, 1952
2. Poona agreement, 1956
3. Kashmir agreement, 1960
4. Bengal agreement, 1950

Explanation

The 1952 Delhi Agreement also specified that the state should have its own flag in addition to the Union flag and they should have the same status.

218. The head of state in J&K called Sadar-i-Riyasat was?

1. Elected by the state legislature
2. Nominated by the state legislature
3. Nominated by the governor
4. Nominated by president of India

Explanation

It was agreed that head of state in J&K called Sadar-i-Riyasat (or the Prime Minister) was to be elected by the state legislature

219. As per article 370 the state legislature of J&K has a term of?

1. 5 years
2. 6 years
3. 7 years
4. 4 years

Explanation

The state legislature has a six year term, unlike other elected bodies, which have a five-year period, including Parliament

220. Find out the correct statement about article 370

1. The Indian Supreme Court has no jurisdiction in J&K
2. But disrespecting the Tri -color and other national symbols is a crime in the state
3. 1 only
4. 2 only
5. Both 1 & 2
6. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

The Indian Supreme Court has no jurisdiction in J&K. Disrespecting the Tri color and other national symbols is not a crime in the state

221. Find out the correct statement about article 370

1. J&K residents enjoy dual citizenship.
2. They will lose their J&K citizenship if they marry residents of other states
3. 1 only
4. 2 only
5. Both 1 & 2
6. Neither 1 nor 2

222. Find out the incorrect statement about article 370

1. A Pakistani resident could not get J&K citizenship if he marries a J&K citizen
2. RTE, RTI CAG and majority of Indian laws are not applicable in the state
3. 1 only
4. 2 only
5. Both 1 & 2
6. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

A Pakistani resident gains J&K citizenship if he marries a J&K citizen.

223. Find out the incorrect statement about article 370

1. The Delhi agreement opposed imposition of Article 352, empowering the President to proclaim general emergency in the state
2. Because of Article 370, no outsider can purchase land in J&K
3. 1 only
4. 2 only
5. Both 1 & 2
6. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

224. Who is the law minister during 1949?

1. N. Madhava Rao
2. Saiyid Muhammad Saadulla
3. Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
4. Sir AlladiKrishnaswamy Ayyar

Explanation

In 1949, the then Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru had directed Kashmiri leader Sheikh Abdullah to consult Ambedkar (then law minister) to prepare the draft of a suitable article to be included in the Constitution.

225. Article 370 is located in which part of the Indian constitution

1. Part 20
2. Part 21
3. Part 22
4. Part 19

Explanation

Article 370 is drafted in Amendment of the Constitution section, in Part XXI, under Temporary and Transitional Provisions.

226. Find out the incorrect statement

1. Under Article 370 the Indian Parliament can increase the borders of the state
2. Under Article 370 the Indian Parliament can reduce the borders of the state
3. 1 only
4. 2 only
5. Both 1 & 2
6. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Under Article 370 the Indian Parliament cannot increase or reduce the borders of the state.

227. Dr. BR Ambedkar, the drafter of the Indian Constitution, had refused to draft

1. Article 352
2. Article 356
3. Article 370
4. Article 360

Explanation

Dr. BR Ambedkar, the principal drafter of the Indian Constitution, had refused to draft Article 370.

228. Which of the following person drafted article 370 of Indian constitution

1. N. Madhava Rao
2. Saiyid Muhammad Saadulla
3. Gopalaswami Ayyangar
4. Sir AlladiKrishnaswamy Ayyar

229. Find out the correct statement about Sankarlinganar

1. He is a Tamil Indian Independence activist
2. He is a Gandhian.
3. He was born in Manmalai Medu in Virudhunagar District
4. 1, 2
5. 2, 3
6. 3, 1
7. 1, 2, 3

Explanation

Sankarlinganar is a Tamil Indian Independence activist and Gandhian. He was born in Manmalai Medu in Virudhunagar District to Karuppasamy and Valliammal in 1895

230. Find out the incorrect statement about Sankarlinganar

1. He joined the Indian National Congress in 1917.
2. He also participated in the Salt March in 1940 along with Gandhi
3. 1 only
4. 2 only
5. Both 1 & 2
6. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

He joined the Indian National Congress in 1917. He also participated in the Salt March in 1930 along with Gandhi under Rajaji’s influence

231. Potti Sreeramalu fasted demanding for a separate state of Telugu in?

1. 1948
2. 1959
3. 1952
4. 1947

Explanation

The consequence of Potti Sreeramalu fasted demanding for a separate state of Telugu from Madras state for Telugu speaking people and Madras city to be its capital in 1952 led to new agitation in Madras state in need to change its name.

232. Find out the correct statement about sankarlinganar

1. Thiyagi Sankaralinganar observed Fasting 76 days
2. He observed fasting from 27.07.1957 to 10.10.1957
3. He fasted for the name conversion of Madras Presidency as “Chennai”
4. B and C

Explanation

Thiyagi Sankaralinganar observed Fasting 76 days from27.07.1956 to 10.10.1956, for the name conversion of Madras Presidency as “Tamizhagam.”

233. The State of Madras changed the name as State of Tamil Nadu in?

1. 1967
2. 1963
3. 1978
4. 1968

Explanation

The State of Madras changed the name as State of Tamil Nadu by the Madras State (Alteration Of Name) Act, 1968.

234. Sankarlinganar started his hunger strike in?

1. Madras
2. Virudhunagar
3. Vilupuram
4. Vedharanyam

Explanation

235. Despite the request of whom Sankarlinganar continued fast

1. C.N.Annadurai
2. M.P Sivaganam
3. Jeevanardham
4. 1, 2
5. 2, 3
6. 3, 1
7. 1, 2, 3

Explanation

In 1956, Sankarlinganar started to fast on demand for change in the name of the state from Madras to Tamil Nadu. He started his hunger strike on 27th July on 1956 in Virudhunagar for 12 demands. Despite the request of C.N.Annadurai, M.P Sivaganam, and Jeevanardham, hecontinued to fast and died on the 76th day on 13th October 1956

236. Find out the incorrect statement

1. The Select Committee is made up of a small number of parliamentary members.
2. The Select Committee is made up of a small number of union ministers.
3. 1 only
4. 2 only
5. Both 1 & 2
6. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

The Select Committee is made up of a small number of parliamentary members appointed to deal with particular aspects originating in the Westminster System of parliamentary democracy.

237. Under which rule of the Rajya Sabha Rules and Procedures, any member may move a bill which is referred to a select committee.

1. Rule 125
2. Rule 120
3. Rule 15
4. Rule 110

Explanation

Under Rule 125 of the Rajya Sabha Rules and Procedures, any member may move a bill which is referred to a select committee and, when the motion is admitted, the bill shall be referred to such a committee.

238. Find out the correct statement

1. The quorum needs to be one-third of the total number of members of the committee.
2. The quorum needs to be two-third of the total number of members of the committee
3. 1 only
4. 2 only
5. Both 1 & 2
6. Neither 1 nor 2

239. Find out the correct statement about select committee

1. In case of a tie on any matter, the chairman will cast his vote.
2. The select committee may appoint a sub-committee to examine any particular points connected with the bill.
3. If any doubt arises on any aspect of the procedure the chairman may refer the point to the Rajya Sabha Chairman, whose decision will be final.
4. 1, 2
5. 2, 3
6. 1, 3
7. 1, 2, 3

Explanation

In case of a tie on any matter, the chairman (or any other person presiding) will cast his vote. The select committee may appoint a sub-committee to examine any particular points connected with the bill.

240. Which of the following person will call a joint sitting of the two Houses to resolve the deadlock of a bill?

1. Prime Minister
2. President
3. Council of Minister
4. Cabinet ministers

241. On which of the following situation president calls for joint sitting?

1. Bill rejected
2. Any disagreement
3. More than six months has elapsed
4. 1, 2
5. 2, 3
6. 3, 1
7. 1, 2, 3

Explanation

Whenever a bill passed by one house is rejected by another house or any disagreement or more than six months has elapsed, the President of India may call a joint sitting of the two Houses to resolve the deadlock. The bill will be passed in both Houses by a majority of the total number of members of both Houses present and voting

242. President convenes joint sitting for which of the following bill

1. Money bill
2. Ordinary bill
3. Constitution Amendment Bill
4. 1, 2 only
5. 2 only
6. 2, 3 only
7. None of the above

Explanation

There is no provision in the Indian Constitution for a joint sitting of both houses on a money bill or a Constitution Amendment Bill.

243. Who said “Each House has full authority to regulate its procedure within the limits of the Constitution. Neither House, by itself, constitutes Parliament. It is the two Houses together that are the Parliament of India.”?

1. Jawaharlal Nehru
2. Indira Gandhi
3. Mahatma Gandhi
4. Ambedkar

245. Find out the important joint sittings

1. Dowry Prohibition Bill, 1959.
2. Prevention of Terrorism Bill, 2002.
3. 1 only
4. 2 only
5. Both 1 & 2
6. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

6 and 9 May 1961 on Dowry Prohibition Bill, 1959. 26 March 2002 on Prevention of Terrorism Bill, 2002.

246. Find out the correct statement

1. Bill is the draft of a legislative proposal put in the proper form.
2. When a bill passed by both Houses of Parliament it becomes an Act.
3. Clauses is a series of numbered paragraphs into which an Act is divided.
4. B and C

Explanation

Bill: The draft of a legislative proposal put in the proper form which, when passed by both Houses of Parliament and assented to by the President becomes an Act. Clauses: A series of numbered paragraphs into which a Bill is divided.

247. The state includes

1. Government of India
2. Parliament of India
3. The Government of all states
4. The Legislature of each of the States
5. 1, 2, 3
6. 2, 3, 4
7. 1, 3, 4
8. 1, 2, 3, 4

Explanation

State: It includes the Government and Parliament of India and the Government and the Legislature of each of the States and all local or other authorities within the territory of India or under the control of the Government of India.

248. Find out the correct statement about standing committee

1. Committee constituted by election by the House every year
2. It may be nominated by the president every year
3. 1 only
4. 2 only
5. Both 1 & 2
6. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Standing Committee: Committee constituted by election by the House or nomination by the Chairman every year or from time to time which are permanent in nature.

249. Find out the incorrect statement

1. Resolution is the formal expression of the opinion of the legislative body with reference to some subject or a declaration of its intention to do something.
2. Question hour is the first hour of a sitting of the House allotted for asking and answering of questions.
3. 1 only
4. 2 only
5. Both 1 & 2
6. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Session: A session of Rajya Sabha comprises the period commencing from the date and time mentioned in the order of the President summoning Rajya Sabha and ending with the day on which the President prorogues Rajya Sabha.

250. Find out the correct statement about quorum

1. The minimum number of members required to be present at a sitting of the House or a Committee for valid transaction of its business.
2. The quorum to constitute a sitting of the House is one-tenth of the total number of members of the House.
3. 1 only
4. 2 only
5. Both 1 & 2
6. Neither 1 nor 2

Explanation

Motion: A formal proposal made to the House by a member that the House do something, order something to be done or express an opinion with regard to some matter, and is so phrased that, if adopted, it will purport to express the judgment or will of the House.

Oath or affirmation: A solemn statement in the name of God or an affirmation made by the member of a Legislature before he takes his seat in the House affirming his allegiance to the Constitution and his resolve to uphold the sovereignty and integrity of the country.